CDS 2 2022 examinations that will be held on September 4 of September 2022 will be conducted by UPSC the people we held across India the total duration of the paper will be six hours the paper will be in three sessions English section math’s section GK sections. everybody would be desirous to know about the correct answer keys that is to be available of CDS 2 2022 examination immediately after fourth of September 2022 in order to correct answers.

We at NCA tries our level best to equip with you the exact answer key of the said examinations immediate after fourth of September the date of the conduct of the examination for the ready reference of every candidate who is you have appeared in the examination.

And she is uploading the answer key for CDS 2 2022 examination for all the three papers like English math’s and general knowledge. There is not an official answer key but we try our level best to try it with you the exact and correct answers anyhow I need discrepancies will be highly regretted.

The cut-off this year in the CDS OTA 04 September 2022 is expected around 112-114 it will also depend upon the number of candidates appearing for this examination which is expected on the higher side due to the people’s interest rate Army as an officer through this course of officers training is Academy which is equally attractive as competitive examination.

Whereas the expected cut-off for the serious I am examination will be around 123 to 125 expectedly generally the candidates after the graduation referred to draft a defence services as an officer through Indian military Academy Dehradun is also another good option for the defence aspirants to join the services as a regular commissioned officers in the Indian armed forces through this premier institute.

After CDS written examination the results normally declared after the hundred days or the conduct the examinations on the basis of the performance in examination merit list is prepared and the SSB interview calls are to be sent accordingly.

The final stage of the selection process is the medical examination of the successful candidates who clear their accessory got the final call for joining the services and there is Bective training centers is based on the merit list of the SSB interview.

The post CDS 2 2022 Maths Answer key English Answer Key and GK Answer Key All Sets appeared first on NCA Academy.

]]>UPSC conducted and the NDA paper on 04 SEPTEMBER 2022 and the paper was held or across India. The paper direction was total of five hours that consist of two sections first is GAT and second is MATHS. You can find the NDA 2 2022 GAT Answer key by others but we assure you that our answer key will be quite accurate and is in right perspective.

We at NCA for uploading the answer key for 04 September 2022 for GAT and maths paper. Though it’s not an official answer key but we assure you that answer is planted by is up to larger extent is right but in case but in case of any discrepancies the inconvenience can be regretted. But our video answers are correct and you can also see them step-by-step in detail you can call the experts and also ask for detailed solution.

Answer key will be in PDF format might have a bit of some discrepancies as we have been rushing as early as possible all the answers. For accurate answers you are advised that you watch the video solutions that will help you understand the paper as well as what all and where or you could have score. We Are providing the numbers of our experts and they will help you in clearing all doubts regarding answer key.

NCA Academy provides a live video further sought for solving the entire CAT and mathematics papers so that each candidates can understand what all is going to come in the paper.

The video answer key also helps the candidates to know about how to solve the mathematics actions where are questions could have been done first and which other questions could have been done later. How to easily clear the mathematical sections and get a rewarding score through time management. In addition to that we also provided the sectional cut-off and the overall cut-off for 04 September 2022 it will help you understand how much score would be required to clear the paper and how you could have enhanced your score level.

The candidates can check the scores and verify how much they will score in the following pattern as mentioned below. There are two papers.**Paper 1** Mathematics**Paper 2** GAT

For both of them marking scheme will be different , we have mentioned below the same and you can go through the same for your benefit.

For each correct answer in paper one that is mathematics +2.5 marks, each incorrect answer .833 marks will be deducted. And for any unanswered question no marks are given.

For paper II that is GAT, +4 marks for correct response, -1.33 marks for wrong answer and no marks will be given for unanswered questions.

- Clearing NDA 2 2022 Written Paper.
- Medicals And Final Merit List.
- NDA 2 2022 GAT Answer key, Expected Cut Off And Sectional Cut Offs.

According to the difficulty of the paper and considering previous trends also the number of candidates who gave the examination we believe the NDA 2 2022 written expected cut-off will be 360. The sectional cut-off for NDA 2 2022 will be at 25% in each section of the NDA 2 2022 paper.

In the following table we have marked the different cut-offs along with overall marks that were needed to qualify the UPSC NDA Examination.

The post NDA 2 2022 GAT Answer key [All Sets] and NDA 2 2022 Expected Cut Offs appeared first on NCA Academy.

]]>**EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.11/2021.CDS-II DATED 22.12.2021 (**Last Date for Submission of Applications: 11.01.2022)

(COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION) UPSC CDS 1 2022 [INCLUDING SSC WOMEN (NON- TECHNICAL) COURSE]

**LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION AND WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS:**

(i) The Online Applications can be filled upto 22th Dec, 2021 till 6:00 PM.

(ii) The online Applications of **CDS Exam** can be withdrawn from 22.12.2021 to 11.01.2022 till 6.00 PM.

**Name of the Course and Approximate No. of Vacancies:**

Indian Military Academy, Dehradun— 100 154th (DE) Course commencing in Jan, 2023 [including 13 vacancies reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Army Wing) holders]

Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala—Course 22 commencing in Jan, 2023 Executive Branch (General Service)/Hydro [including 03 vacancies for NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Naval Wing through NCC Special Entry ) holders ].

Air Force Academy, Hyderabad—(Pre-Flying) 32 Training Course commencing in Jan, 2023

i.e. No. 212 F(P) Course. [including 03 vacancies are reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Air Wing) holders through NCC Spl. Entry]

Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras)— 169 1167h SSC (Men) (NT) (UPSC) Course commencing in March April , 2023

Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Madras) 16 31st SSC Women (NT) (UPSC) Course commencing in March April 2023.

**Total vacancies 339**

Since women candidates are eligible for OTA only, they should give OTA as their first and only preference.

**Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :**

(i) For IMA—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd Jan, 1999 and not later than 1st Jan, 2004 only are eligible.

(ii) For Indian Naval Academy—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd Jan, 1999 and not later than 1st Jan, 2004 only are eligible.

(iii) For Air Force Academy—

20 to 24 years as on 1st July, 2022 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd Jan, 1999 and not later than 1st Jan, 2003 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by **DGCA** (India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 2nd Jan, 1997 and not later than 1st Jan, 2003 only are eligible.

Note: Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not

permitted during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the premises.

(iv)For Officers’ Training Academy—(SSC Course for men) unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd Jan, 1998 and not later than 1st Jan, 2004 only are eligible.

(v) For Officers’ Training Academy—(SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 2nd Jan, 1998 and not later than 1st Jan, 2004.

**Educational Qualifications:**

(i) For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai — Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.

(ii)For Indian Naval Academy—Degree in Engineering from a recognised University/Institution.

(iii) For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering.

**SYLLABUS for CDS 1 2022 Examination****ENGLISH (Code No. 01)**

The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike use of words.**GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Code No. 02)**

General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on History of India and Geography of a nature which candidate should be able to answer without special study.**ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (Code No. 03)****ARITHMETIC**

Number System—Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations, addition, substraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time and distance, time and work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation.

Elementary Number Theory—Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5, 9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M. Euclidean algorithm. Logarithms to base 10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic tables. **ALGEBRA**

Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional identities, Laws of indices.**TRIGONOMETRY**

Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° < × < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90°

Simple trigonometric identities.

Use of trigonometric tables.

Simple cases of heights and distances.**GEOMETRY**

Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loci.**MENSURATION**

Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres.**STATISTICS**

Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency.

**Why choose NCA for your UPSC CDS 1 2022 Written Examination Preparation?**

Firstly, 90% will come from a Notes for the same you can have a look at the proof.

Secondly, we have provided shortcuts for for mathematics and for the same we have put in the videos below

Thirdly, look into the results and see the video reviews of candidates have given the CDA Paper.

The post UPSC CDS 1 2022 Notification, Date of Birth, Eligibility, Syllabus and Last Date of Submission appeared first on NCA Academy.

]]>**EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.11/2022-NDA-1 DATED 22.12.2021 (Last Date for Submission of Applications: 11.01.2022)**

**NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY & UPSC NDA 1 2022**

LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION AND WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS for UPSC NDA 1 2022:

(i) The Online Applications can be filled upto 22th Dec, 2021 till 6:00 PM.

(ii) The online Applications can be withdrawn from 22.12.2021 to 11.01.2022 till 6:00 PM. Detailed instructions regarding withdrawal of Applications is available

An Examination will be conducted by the **Union Public Service Commission** on 10th April , 2021 for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 149th Course, and for the 110th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 2nd Jan, 2023.

**CENTRES OF UPSC NDA 1 2022 EXAMINATION:**

The Examination will be held at the following Centres :

Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Prayagraj (Allahabad), Bengaluru, Bareilly, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi, Dharwad, Dispur, Gangtok, Hyderabad, Imphal, Itanagar, Jaipur, Jammu, Jorhat, Kochi, Kohima, Kolkata, Lucknow, Madurai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Panaji (Goa), Patna, Port Blair, Raipur, Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram, Tirupati, Udaipur and Vishakhapatnam.

Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the centres except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the first-apply-first-allot basis and once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice.

**CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY:**

(a) Nationality : A candidate must be unmarried male and must be :

(i) (ii)

a citizen of India, or a subject of Nepal, or

a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan,

(iii)

Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii), above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

**Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :**

Only unmarried male and female candidates born not earlier than 02nd July , 2003 and not later than 2nd July 2006 are eligible.

**Educational Qualifications for UPSC NDA 1 2022**:

- For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
- For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :—12th Class pass with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
- Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination can also apply for this examination.

Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the 12th class or equivalent examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the 12th class or equivalent examination by the prescribed date (**i.e. 24th Jan 2023)** and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of Board/University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever.

**SCHEME OF EXAMINATION**

- The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:—

**SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION**

**PAPER-I MATHEMATICS (Code No. 01) (Maximum Marks-300)**

** ALGEBRA**

Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation.Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications. Logarithms and their applications.

**MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS :**

Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by Matrix Method.

**3. TRIGONOMETRY :**

Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric functions. Applications-Height and distance, properties of triangles.

**4. ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS:**

Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a three dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation of a plane and a line in various forms. Angle between two lines and angle between two planes. Equation of a sphere.

**5. DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS :**

Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits—examples. Continuity of functions—examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications. Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima.

**6. INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS :**

Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves—applications.

Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation by examples. General and particular solution of a differential equations, solution of first order and first degree differential equations of various types—examples. Application in problems of growth and decay.

**7. VECTOR ALGEBRA :**

Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of two vectors. Vector product or cross product of two vectors. Applications—work done by a force and moment of a force and in geometrical problems.

**8. STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY :**

Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution—examples. Graphical representation—Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon— examples. Measures of Central tendency—Mean, median and mode. Variance and standard deviation—determination and comparison. Correlation and regression.

Probability : Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain events. Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of probability—classical and statistical—examples. Elementary theorems on probability—simple problems. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution.

**PAPER-II**

**GENERAL ABILITY TEST (Code No. 02) (Maximum Marks—600)**

**Part ‘A’—ENGLISH (Maximum Marks—200)**

The question paper in English will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding of English and workman like use of words. The syllabus covers various aspects like : Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test the candidate’s proficiency in English.

**Part ‘B’—GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks—400)**

The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly cover the subjects : Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and Current Events.

- The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these subjects included in this paper. The topics mentioned are not to be regarded as exhaustive and questions on topics of similar nature not specifically mentioned in the syllabus may also be asked. Candidate’s answers are expected to show their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the subject.

**Why Choose NCA for the NDA 1 2022 Coaching ?**

We would like to give very simple reasons for the same

Firstly, 90% of the paper will come from a Notes and for that see the videos below

Secondly, we have had more than 38,000 selections and hear the reviews of our students.

Thirdly, the shortcut methods for mathematics how to clear your paper very easily. Again for that we have posted a video of Nda 1 2022 paper

The post UPSC NDA 1 2022 Notification,Eligibility, Date Of Birth, Qualifications appeared first on NCA Academy.

]]>(i) Flying Branch through AFCAT and NCC Special Entry: 20 to 24 years as on 01 Jan 2023 i.e. born between 02 Jan 1999 to 01 Jan 2003 (both dates inclusive). Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot License issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 years i.e. born between 02 Jan 1997 to 01 Jan 2003 (both dates inclusive).

(ii) Ground Duty (Technical & Non-Technical) Branch: 20 to 26 years as on 01 Jan 2023 i.e. born between 02 Jan 1997 to 01 Jan 2003 both dates inclusive).

(i) Flying Branch. Candidates should have mandatorily passed with a minimum of 50% marks each in Maths and Physics at 10+2 level and

(a) Graduation with minimum three years degree course in any discipline from a recognized University with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.

OR

(b) BE/B Tech degree (Four years course) from a recognised University with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.

OR

(c) Candidates who have cleared Section A & B examination of Associate Membership of Institution of Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society of India from a recognised University with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.

(aa) Aeronautical Engineer (Electronics) {AE (L)}. Candidates with a minimum of 50% marks each in Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level and a minimum of four years degree graduation/integrated post-graduation qualification in Engineering/ Technology from recognized University OR cleared Sections A and B examination of Associate Membership of Institution of Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society of India or Graduate membership examination of the Institution of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineers by actual studies with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent in the following disciplines:-

(aaa) Applied Electronics & Instrumentation.

(aab) CommunicationEngineering.

(aac) Computer Engineering/Technology.

(aad) Computer Engineering & Application.

(aae) Computer Science and Engineering/Technology.

(aaf) Electrical and Computer Engineering.

(aag) Electrical and Electronics Engineering.

(aah) Electrical Engineering.

(aaj) Electronics Engineering/ Technology.

(aak) Electronics Science and Engineering.

(aal) Electronics.

(aam) Electronics and Communication Engineering.

(aan) Electronics and Computer Science.

(aao) Electronics and/or Telecommunication Engineering.

(aap) Electronics and/or Telecommunication Engineering (Microwave).

(aaq) Electronics and Computer Engineering.

(aar) Electronics Communication and Instrumentation Engineering.

(aas) Electronics Instrument & Control.

(aat) Electronics Instrument & Control Engineering.

(aau) Instrumentation & Control Engineering.

(aav) Instrument & Control Engineering.

(aaw) Information Technology.

(aax) Spacecraft Technology.

(aay) Engineering Physics.

(aaz) Electric Power and Machinery Engineering.

(aba) InfotechEngineering.

(abb) Cyber Security.

(aa) Administration. Passed 10+2 and Graduate Degree (Minimum three years degree course) in any discipline from a recognised university with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent or cleared section A & B examination of Associate Membership of Institution of Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society of India from a recognised university with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.

(ab) Education. Passed 10+2 and Post-Graduation with 50% marks in any discipline including integrated courses offering PG (Single degree without permission to exit and lateral entry) and with 60% marks in Graduation in any disciple.

(iv) Meteorology. Passed 10+2 and Post Graduate Degree in any Science stream/ Mathematics/ Statistics/ Geography/ Computer Applications/ Environmental Science/ Applied Physics/ Oceanography/ Meteorology/ Agricultural Meteorology/ Ecology & Environment/ Geo-physics/ Environmental Biology with minimum of 50% marks in aggregate of all papers put together (Provided Maths and Physics were studied at Graduation Level with a minimum of 55% marks in each).

**(aa) English**. Comprehension, Error Detection, Sentence Completion/ Filling in of correct word, Synonyms, Antonyms and Testing of Vocabulary, Idioms and Phrases.**(ab) General Awareness. **Affairs, Environment, Basic Science, Defence, Art, Culture, Sports, etc. History, Geography, Civics, Politics, Current**(ac) Numerical Ability.** Decimal Fraction, Time and Work, Average, Profit & Loss, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion and Simple Interest, Time & Distance (Trains/Boats & Streams).**(ad) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test.**Verbal Skills and Spatial Ability.

Agartala, Ajmer, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Alwar, Allahabad/ Prayagraj, Ambala, Aurangabad, Bareilly, Behrampur (Odisha), Bathinda, Belagavi, Bengaluru, Bhagalpur, Bhilai, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Bhuj, Bikaner, Chandigarh, Chennai, Chhapra, Coimbatore, Delhi and NCR, Dhanbad, Diu, Dibrugarh, Durgapur, Faridabad, Ganganagar, Gaya, Ghaziabad, Gorakhpur, Guntur, Gurugram, Guwahati, Gwalior, Haldwani, Hissar, Hyderabad, Imphal, Indore, Itanagar, Jabalpur, Jaipur, Jalandhar, Jalpaigudi, Jammu, Jamshedpur, Jhansi, Jodhpur, Jorhat, Kakinada, Kannur, Kanpur, Kochi, Kohima, Kolhapur, Kolkata, Kota, Kurukshetra, Leh, Lucknow, Ludhiana, Mangalore, Meerut, Mumbai, Muzzafarpur, Mysore, Nagpur, Nasik, Nizamabad, Noida, Panaji, Patiala, Patna, Port Blair, Puducherry, Pune, Rajkot, Ranchi, Rourkee, Rourkela, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Silchar, Srinagar, Solapur, Sonipat, Thane, Thiruvananthapuram, Thrissur, Tirunelveli, Tirupati, Udaipur, Vadodara, Varanasi, Vellore, Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam, Warangal.

**Height. The minimum height acceptable for various branches are as follows:-**

(i) Flying Branch – 162.5 cm

(ii) Other Branches – 152 cm

**Note:** For other branches only – For candidates belonging to the North East region or hilly regions of Uttarakhand, a lower minimum height of 147 cm will be accepted. In case of candidates from Lakshadweep, the minimum acceptable height will be 150 cm.

Minimum height for Flying Branch will be 162.5 cm. Acceptable measurements of leg length, thigh length and sitting height for such aircrew will be as under: –

(a) Sitting height

(b) Leg Length

(c) Thigh Length

Minimum – Maximum – Minimum – Maximum – Maximum –

81.5 cm – 96.0 cm – 99.0 cm – 120.0 cm – 64.0 cm

The minimum height for entry into ground duty branches will be 157.5 cm. For Gorkhas and individual belonging to North-Eastern regions of India and hilly regions of Uttarakhand, the minimum acceptable height will be 5 cm less (152.5 cm). In case of candidates from Lakshwadweep the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cm (155.5 cm).

The Candidates in Final Year will need to submit their degree by or submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by 30 Nov, 22.

The post AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION TEST (AFCAT- 01/2022) FOR FLYING BRANCH AND GROUND DUTY (TECHNICAL AND NON-TECHNICAL) BRANCHES/ NCC SPECIAL ENTRY/ METEOROLOGY ENTRY FOR COURSES COMMENCING IN Jan 2023 appeared first on NCA Academy.

]]>The post UPSC Nda 2 2021 90% FROM Notes Of NCA appeared first on NCA Academy.

]]>The UPSC combined defence services paper OTA/IMA/AFA/INA. held on 14 November 2021 has just finished. More than four lakh candidates have given the examination there prepared for it I am now looking forward to the answer key for the same. The combined defence examination paper was open for both girls and boys below the age of 25 and was headed across all over India on 14th November. The paper was conducted by the UPSC and the duration of the paper lasted between four hours and six hours.

The candidates after giving the paper can find the most accurate answer key at the website for NCA Academy. The entire team is dedicated towards providing you the most correct and accurate answer key. The candidates are requested to mark the correct and wrong answers and evaluate the marks according to the answer key provided by NCA.

The English paper consisted of 120 questions the total marks being hundred. The paper was a total of hundred marks. Total duration of two hours was allotted for the paper. We are we at NCA have produced the most official and most accurate answer key for the CDS 2 2021 written examination paper for English consisting of Set A, Set B, Set C and Set D. The UPSC English CDS 2 2021 paper was conducted in the first shift from 9 to 11.

Given below are the answer keys for the CDS 2 2021 English Answer key SET A , SET B , SET C and SET D.

The candidates can also download the paper by clicking on the following link **UPSC CDS 2 2021 Answer Key.**

For the benefit of the candidates we have also provided video answers for the CDS 2 2021 written paper English.

The GK paper was conducted in the second shift from 12 to 2 it also consisted of 120 questions the total time allotted was two hours. This paper consisted of general science, history civics geography economics and current affairs. The current affairs were of the past four months. The paper was of moderate difficulty. The candidates were required to have comprehensive knowledge to clear this paper. We at NCA have gone through each and every question has provided you with the most accurate and correct answer key for GK CDS 2 2021 examination. The following links you can click on it and corroborate your answers according to the answer key provided by us.

For the benefit of the candidates also provided with your answers for the CDS 2 2020 1GK paper and the solution key for the same.

You can also go through the Video solution for CDS 2 2021 GK paper by NCA team

You can also click on the following link to download the CDS 2 2021 GK paper along with the answer key.

The mathematics paper was conducted in the last shift from 3 to 5 the paper was of hundred questions and hundred marks it was to be attempted only by the candidates who are applying for IMA/INA and Naval Academy Papers. The paper was of moderate difficulty but candidates can easily attempt 60 questions which Shortcuts the same paper. We at NCA have solved the paper for you and provided you with the most accurate and correct answer key for the CDS to 2021 mathematics answer.

You can also download the paper by clicking on the following link

We have also provided the most accurate video answers including the shortcuts for the CDS 2 2021 math’s paper.

The CDS 2 2021 written paper which were conducted on 14th November 2021. Result will be declared after a total of hundred days. The candidates can evaluate the answers I know how much Dave scored and what would be the final Cut house for the same paper and if they clearing the examinations or not.

Min. Qualifying marks

20% marks

20% marks

20% marks

20% marks

20% marks

Min Aggregate marks of last Candidate qualified

144 marks

134 marks

154 marks

100 marks

100 marks

There is bound to be a sexual cut-off for the CDS 2 2021 paper with respect to previous years paper. The aspirants need to score a total of 20% in each paper to clear the examinations. Meaning in GK English and mathematics each paper the candidate needs to score 20% marks out of the allotted hundred marks including negative marking to clear the CDS written paper and make it to merit.

The candidates can verify the marks by looking at the answer key. For the English paper the candidates can allot themselves for every correct answer 5/6 marks and for every incorrect answer – 5/18 marks.

Say marking scheme will be is there for the GK paper for every correct response 5÷6 marks for every negative response or a wrong response and negative score of 5/18 marks.

But, for the mathematics paper the candidate will be given one mark for every correct answer and -.33 marks for every wrong answer.

Min. Qualifying marks (Written Result)

20% marks

20% marks

20% marks

20% marks

20% marks

Min Aggregate marks of last Candidate qualified (Written Result)

139 marks

134 marks

152 marks

97 marks

97 marks

Marks of Last Recommended Candidate (Final Result)

263

257

279

179

178

Min. Qualifying marks (Written Result)

20% marks

20% marks

20% marks

20% marks

20% marks

Min Aggregate marks of last Candidate qualified (Written Result)

130 marks

118 marks

143 marks

93 marks

93 marks

Marks of Last Recommended Candidate (Final Result)

250

242

274

173

177

The post UPSC CDS 2 2021 Answer Key appeared first on NCA Academy.

]]>NDA written examination was held on 14th November 2021. The first such instance where both girls and boys applied for the paper to get into the national Defence Academy. The paper was divided into sections. The first section comprising of 120 questions and 300 marks what is the mathematics section. The second section comprising of 150 questions total of 600 marks. The section being of English 50 questions and general studies hundred questions.

The paper of NDA 2 2021 had four sets. Set a, set B, set C and set D. Each Set had the same number of questions and same questions only difference being in different orders.

The solution key and the answer key for the NDA 2 2021 paper has been provided by NCA just after the completion of the paper. This is the most accurate of the answer keys provided which will help you understand your score in the given paper .

The candidates can match their answer keys with the solution key provided by us. For each correct response in mathematics the candidate can give themselves +2.5 and for every negative candidate can reduce -2.5÷3. For the section B each candidate can give themselves +4 for correct marks and -4÷3 for negative marks.

The answer key provided by us is the most accurate and reliable answer key. The candidates can verify this far from our answer key. Official answer key for the NDA 2 2021 paper will be announced on the UPSC website generally in the month of March 2022.

NDA 2 2021 paper official cut-off will be announced by end of December. The paper for the UPSC NDA 2 2021 conducted on 14th November, 2021 on a Sunday.

The paper was conducted in different sections and parts of the country on the very same day along with the UPSC CDS Paper. Examinations the written examination for the India paper was conducted and held on 14 November 2021. The cut-offs for the same paper are expected to be around 350 to 360 marks. The UPSC will be declaring the list of candidates who have cleared the paper by the end of the December. This paper was out of a total of 900 marks. The final cut-offs for the NDA paper will be out of a total of 1800 marks. ( 900 marks for written examination and 900 for the SSB Interview).

Qualifying India caught off for each subject will be again same as 25%. That means each candidate needs to score a minimum of 25% in Section 1 and section 2 respectively the candidates are also required to meet equal standards for both the returns and SSB into examination. On the basis of the NDA Written examinations for the candidates would be recommended for admission into Indian Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the national Defence Academy and Naval Academy for the course starting January 2022.

350-360

720

We at NCA realise a large number of sections and according to them we publish the cut-off on the following factors

- The difficulty of the paper.
- The number of serious candidates giving examinations.
- Comparing it with the paper that has come earlier.
- And finally, the number of seats allocated.

NDA 2 cut offs (Sectional Cut Offs)

330 (with at least 25% marks in each subject)

325 (with at least 25% marks in each subject)

258 (with at least 25% marks in each subject)

229 (with at least 25% marks in each subject)

The candidates can download the mathematics and GAT answer key for all Sets A, B, C and D from the New Careers Academy website. This is the most accurate answer key as it has been prepared by the experts.

For more detailed solutions for mathematics one can look at the video solutions of all the questions which are given below the following link for the mathematics NDA 2 2021 solution key.

Also we have added the detailed video solutions for NDA to 2021 GAT sections For sets A/B/C and D. this is the most accurate answer key and you can also ask us from where the answer has come. The entire answer and the solutions are from a Notes.

The post NDA 2 2021 Answer Key appeared first on NCA Academy.

]]>The large number of candidates are not able to make a proper study plan as to how and when how much time should be devoted for different subjects. We have tried to make and devise a very simple study plan for you which will help you focus on different sections according to the weightage and according to the importance in the UPSC NDA 2 2021 examinations.

The NDA paper consist of two sections section a 120 questions of mathematics which is of 300 marks. Section B which is 150 question of 600 marks.

The required percentage in each section and not each subject is 25%. So to pass the paper one needs a minimum of 75 marks in mathematics and 150 marks in section B of the NDA examination. Considering previous years God of the God of should remain between 360 to 380 marks . Which is an overall 40+ percentage marks along with negative marking.

Stated above maths is it compulsory to pass the end examination so every day at least 2 1/2 hours should be put on the mathematics topic and a student can easily score 40 percentage marks in Nda even by studying simple topics. Just for an example we have added the Nda 1 2021 paper which shortcut methods so as to show that what all topics are very easy and can be done in limited time.

The post How much time needs to be devoted for each subject of the NDA 2 2021 examination? appeared first on NCA Academy.

]]>As majority of the candidates already know that the NDA paper has been rescheduled on the date has been changed to 14 November 2021 meaning the candidates not have loads of time to prepare and score heavily in their upcoming UPSC NDA 2 2021 paper.

First one should know **why has the paper been postponed the reason** for it is that the current pandemic situation along with it the other factor which is at work is the safety of the candidates which has been taken in mind while changing the date of the NDA written examination.

Continuing on **what effect will it have on the SSB interview dates and the joining for the national defence Academy**y

After the candidates have given the paper for the national defence Academy examination on 14th of the member there is also likely to come out another span of two months provided the third wave of Covid pandemic does not hit. The interview dates to be further pushed to once down that is they will start from January February March with April being off for the Board Examinations and then continuing again in May.

The joining will remain the same as in two months would be provided after the SSB for the medical board. So the candidates need not worry on the date of joining it will not be extended as two months delay means nothing in effect the joining For NDA.

The post Is the date for the SSB for NDA 2 2021 going to changed? appeared first on NCA Academy.

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